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From: "Jonathan Laidlow" <LAIDLOJM@hhs.bham.ac.uk>
Subject: (urth) terminus est
Date: Thu, 3 Dec 1998 17:25:06 GMT

Just because the Biblical and historical evidence does not support 
our reading of 'Terminus Est' as a deliberate echo of the Latin 
translations of the Biblical 'Consumatum Est'/It is finished, surely 
that does not mean that 'Terminus Est' does not deliberately echo 
Jesus' words, albeit in a different language.

Surely the eclectic religious symbolism used in the Book supports
this. Its not as strong a point as the original one that there is a 
direct correlation, but I believe the general point is sound. 

Or am I missing the point somewhat? 

Jonathan Laidlow
Dept of English - staff pigeonholes
University of Birmingham
B15 2TT, England
0121 414 5976

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